UGC NET SET - Paper 1

Sources of Pollution, Pollutants, and their Impact on Human life

⛪ UGC NET, SET > UGC NET SET - Paper 1

Preparing for competitive exams or other important assessments that cover sources of pollution, pollutants, and their impact on human life? Our comprehensive resource offers a diverse collection of MCQ questions and answers specifically designed for this topic. Explore various sources of pollution, types of pollutants, and their effects on human health and well-being. Strengthen your exam preparation and test your knowledge with our practice questions, designed to enhance your understanding of the environmental and health impacts of pollution. Gain a competitive edge and excel in your exams with our valuable exam practice resource, ensuring you are well-equipped to address pollution-related challenges and promote sustainable solutions for a healthier environment and human life. ➲ Sources of Pollution, Pollutants, and their Impact on Human life - Quiz

Q 1: The chemical responsible for blue baby syndrome that is caused by restricted supply of oxygen to the brain is

  • A Nitrates
  • B Sulphates
  • C Fluorides
  • D Oxides

Q 2: Lead is used as an anti-knocking agent (tetra-ethyl lead) in petrol. It affects our

  • A Central nervous system
  • B Respiratory system
  • C Cardiac system
  • D Skeletal system

Q 3: Atmospheric pollutants are mainly present in

  • A Ionosphere
  • B Stratosphere
  • C Mesosphere
  • D Troposphere and lower stratosphere

Q 4: How are nitrogen oxides, sulphur oxides and carbon oxides related?

  • A All of them are secondary air pollutants that contribute to global warming.
  • B All of them are primary air pollutants that contribute to acid deposition.
  • C All are air pollutants formed by combustion of fossil fuels.
  • D All of them are air pollutants that result in respiratory diseases in humans.

Q 5: The common features between NO2, SO2, CO and SPM is that all of them

  • A Are classified as primary pollutants.
  • B Are classified as secondary pollutants.
  • C Have equal role in causing acid rain.
  • D Are greenhouse gases.

Q 6: Which of the following best illustrates a secondary air pollutant?

  • A CO2 released from the burning of coal.
  • B NO2 released from the burning of oil.
  • C Ozone produced in photochemical smog.
  • D None of the above

Q 7: Which of the following can be considered as the best example of primary air pollutants?

  • A Carbon dioxide released from burning of coal.
  • B Sulphur trioxide.
  • C Ozone produced in photochemical smog.
  • D Carbon dioxide released through photo synthesis.

Q 8: The main difference between primary air pollutants and secondary air pollutants is

  • A Former contains water molecules, while secondary pollutants do not.
  • B Primary air pollutants have more direct effect on human health.
  • C Former are released directly into the atmosphere, while the latter are formed by chemical reactions in the atmosphere.
  • D Primary air pollutants are formed through photochemical reactions in the sunlight, while the secondary air pollutants are not.

Q 9: The air pollutants are mainly classified as

  • A Point source and non-point source
  • B Primary and secondary pollutants
  • C Natural or anthropogenic pollutants
  • D None of the above

Q 10: Which of the following metal is responsible for Minamata disease?

  • A Mercury
  • B Cadmium
  • C Chromium
  • D Iron

Q 11: Intake of lead may primarily cause damage of the

  • A Brain
  • B Lung
  • C Liver
  • D Kidney

Q 12: Which of the following geographic area is the largest source of CO2 emissions from burning of fossil fuel?

  • A China
  • B Russia
  • C North America
  • D European Union

Q 13: Industries generating hazardous waste are classified as

  • A Brown
  • B Green
  • C Yellow
  • D Red

Q 14: Which of the following greenhouse gases are entirely anthropogenic in origin?

  • A Water vapour
  • B Carbon dioxide
  • C CFCs
  • D Methane

Q 15: Peroxyacyl nitrate (PAN) is a by-product of

  • A Photochemical smog
  • B London smog
  • C Sulphurous smog
  • D None of the above

Q 16: The balance in oxygen level is maintained by

  • A Photosynthesis and cellular respiration
  • B Industrial emissions of gases
  • C Release of ozone in upper atmosphere
  • D None of the above

Q 17: The problems caused by air pollutants basically affect

  • A Circulatory and nervous system
  • B Circulatory and respiratory system
  • C Muscular system
  • D None of the above

Q 18: Global warming during winter becomes more pronounced at the

  • A Equator
  • B Poles
  • C Tropic of Cancer
  • D Tropic of Capricorn

Q 19: Which of the following about peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN) is true?

  • A They are secondary pollutants.
  • B Produced when hydrocarbon radical reacts with nitrogen oxide.
  • C Cause respiratory diseases in human beings.
  • D All the above

Q 20: The inability to hear important environmental cues and animal signals is termed as

  • A Masking
  • B Tasking
  • C Frisking
  • D None of the above

Q 21: With the absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be

  • A Decrease in temperature.
  • B Increase in salinity.
  • C Growth of phytoplanktons.
  • D Rise in sea level.

Q 22: Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both the short waves and radiations.

  • A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • C A is true but R is false.
  • D A is false but R is true.

Q 23: Which of the following is not a primary air pollutant?

  • A Methane
  • B Sulphur dioxide
  • C Ozone
  • D Asbestos

Q 24: The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by

  • A Coal
  • B Firewood
  • C Refuse burning
  • D Vegetable waste product

Q 25: Tamil Nadu coastal belt has drinking water problem due to

  • A High evaporation.
  • B Sea water flooding due to tsunami.
  • C Over-exploitation of ground water by tube wells.
  • D Seepage of sea water.

Q 26: The main pollutant of the Indian coastal water is

  • A Oil spills
  • B Municipal sewage
  • C Industrial effluents
  • D Aerosols

Q 27: Malaria is caused by

  • A Bacterial infection
  • B Viral infection
  • C Parasitic infection
  • D Fungal infection

Q 28: Which of the following is an indicator of water quality and presence of organic matter in water?

  • A BOD
  • B COD
  • C Both (a) and (b)
  • D None of the above

Q 29: The plume rise in a coal-based power plant depends on

I. Buoyancy

II. Atmospheric stability

III. Momentum of exhaust gases

Codes:

  • A (I) and (II) only
  • B (II) and (III) only
  • C (I) and (III) only
  • D (I), (II) and (III)

Q 30: Which of the following units is used to measure the intensity of noise?

  • A Decibel
  • B Hz
  • C Phon
  • D Watts/m2

Q 31: Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following frequency range?

  • A 1–2 kHz
  • B 100–500 Hz
  • C 10–12 kHz
  • D 13–16 kHz

Q 32: Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospitals wastes is incorrect?

  • A Plastics: 9–12%
  • B Metals: 1–2%
  • C Ceramic: 8–10%
  • D Biodegradable: 35–40%

Q 33: Maximum soot is released from

  • A Petrol vehicles
  • B CNG vehicles
  • C Diesel vehicles
  • D Thermal power plants

Q 34: Surface ozone is produced from

  • A Transport sector
  • B Cement plants
  • C Textile industry
  • D Chemical industry

Q 35: In the metro city of Kolkata, the major cause of air pollution is

  • A Hydrocarbons
  • B Carbon monoxide
  • C Water vapours
  • D None of the above

Q 36: Which of the following is the main discharge from coalbased power plants (thermal plants)?

  • A SPM
  • B Fly ash
  • C Smog
  • D None of the above

Q 37: High concentration of oxides of nitrogen can cause

  • A Headache
  • B Dizziness and loss of consciousness
  • C Respiratory irritation
  • D All of the above

Q 38: Sulphur dioxide is mainly released from

  • A Cars and trucks
  • B Photochemical reactions
  • C Factories
  • D None of the above

Q 39: Automobiles and trucks are not an important source of which of the following air pollutants?

  • A Carbon dioxide
  • B Hydrocarbons
  • C Nitrogen oxides
  • D Sulphur oxides

Q 40: Ozone is considered as a secondary air pollutant because it

  • A Is in the upper layers of the atmosphere.
  • B Is formed by chemical reactions in atmosphere.
  • C Is produced in industry.
  • D Secondary role in causing pollution.

Q 41: Nitrogen oxide affects human health by

  • A Causing irritation to the eyes and skin.
  • B Aggravating asthma problem.
  • C Decreasing blood’s ability to transport oxygen.
  • D None of the above

Q 42: Which of the following gas affects human health by reducing the blood’s ability to carry oxygen to different parts of the body?

  • A Carbon monoxide
  • B Sulphur dioxide
  • C Carbon dioxide
  • D Nitrous dioxide

Q 43: What process causes the disintegration of rock at or near the earth’s surface?

  • A Physical weathering
  • B Erosion
  • C Chemical weathering
  • D None of the above

Q 44: What type of chemical weathering is enhanced by acid rain?

  • A Dissolution
  • B Hydrolysis
  • C Oxidation
  • D None of the above

Q 45: Ozone depletion is caused due to increase in the level of

  • A Water vapour
  • B Chlorofluorocarbon
  • C Oxygen
  • D Carbon monoxide

Q 46: Which of the following methods can be used to increase the supply of usable, good quality water?

  • A Chlorination
  • B Metallurgy
  • C Cloud seeding
  • D None of these

Q 47: Excessive exposure to pesticides is mainly responsible for damage to

  • A Endocrine and immune system
  • B Respiratory system
  • C Muscular system
  • D Nervous system

Q 48: Excessive exposure to pesticides mainly causes

  • A Malaria
  • B Diphtheria
  • C Cancer and neurological problems
  • D None of the above

Q 49: The main chemical responsible for ozone depletion is

  • A PAN
  • B Sulphur dioxide
  • C CO
  • D CFCs

Q 50: The process of dumping solid waste in a scientifically designated land area is called

  • A Dumping
  • B Waste disposal
  • C Sanitary landfill
  • D None of the above

Q 51: The constituent of smog that causes irritation to the eyes is

  • A NO
  • B PAN
  • C CO
  • D None of these

Q 52: The pesticide directly affecting the nervous system is

  • A DDT
  • B Aldrin
  • C Organic phosphates
  • D None of the above

Q 53: Which of the following pollutants mainly released by burning of diesel fuel is responsible for photochemical smog?

  • A Oxides of sulphur
  • B Oxides of nitrogen
  • C Oxides of carbon
  • D None of the above

Q 54: Which of the following fuels are mainly responsible for release of lead into the environment?

  • A Diesel
  • B Petrol
  • C Coal
  • D All of the above

Q 55: All hydrocarbons (except CH4) contribute to the production of

  • A Acid deposition
  • B Greenhouse effect
  • C Photochemical smog
  • D None of the above

Q 56: Carbon dioxide and methane are similar in terms of

  • A Both being secondary air pollutants.
  • B Being responsible for respiratory diseases.
  • C Contribution to global warming.
  • D None of the above

Q 57: Which of the following statements is true with regard to noise and noise pollution?

  • A Decibel is the linear scale of noise measurement.
  • B A jet plane is one of the highest decibel sources of noise.
  • C A change from 40 dB to 80 dB is exactly double in loudness.
  • D Noise cannot be shielded.

Q 58: Which of the following is a water-borne disease?

  • A Blue baby syndrome
  • B Meningitis
  • C Diarrhoea
  • D Cholera

Q 59: Which of the following ultimately causes oxygen depletion in water bodies?

  • A Fish
  • B Human beings
  • C Microorganisms
  • D None of the above

Q 60: The main source of water pollution is

  • A Sewage water
  • B Acid rain
  • C Industrial pollutants
  • D None of the above

Q 61: Quality of resource not degraded due to pollution is

  • A Sun
  • B Sand
  • C Water
  • D Air

Q 62: Air pollution is an increasing problem in developing countries due to

  • A Burning of more coal to produce electricity.
  • B Changing lifestyles.
  • C Unavailability of environment-friendly technologies.
  • D All the above

Q 63: Which of the following can help in reducing air pollution?

  • A Small-sized cars
  • B Removal of sulphur from coal
  • C Lower ignition fuels
  • D None of the above

Q 64: How does photochemical smog form?

  • A The release of primary air pollutants.
  • B Interaction occurs between chemicals such as CFCs and ozone.
  • C Reactions occur between secondary air pollutants and sunlight.
  • D The release of formaldehyde and radon inside buildings.

Q 65: Why is photochemical smog typically worse in the summer?

  • A There is more solar energy to drive photochemical reactions.
  • B People tend to travel more in summers.
  • C Warm temperatures prevent the dissipation of pollutants.
  • D None of the above

Q 66: What is the main source of pollutants of nitrogen oxides, sulphur oxides and carbon oxides?

  • A Photochemical reactions in the atmosphere.
  • B Burning fossil fuels at high temperatures.
  • C Industrial processes
  • D All the above

Q 67: Which of the following is the unit of measurement of noise pollution?

  • A Pascal
  • B Decibels
  • C Hertz
  • D All of these

Q 68: Zero decibel is the

  • A Threshold point for hearing.
  • B Threshold point for physical pain.
  • C Where no sound waves can travel.
  • D None of the above

Q 69: With which of following kinds of pollution, the term ‘green muffler’ is associated?

  • A Water pollution
  • B Air pollution
  • C Nuclear pollution
  • D Noise pollution

Q 70: A natural phenomenon that becomes harmful due to pollution is

  • A Global warming
  • B Ecological balance
  • C Greenhouse effect
  • D Desertification

Q 71: The pollutant responsible for ozone holes is

  • A SO2
  • B CO
  • C CFC
  • D CO2

Q 72: The best solution to get rid of non- biodegradable wastes is

  • A Burning
  • B Dumping
  • C Burying
  • D Recycling

Q 73: Animal dung is

  • A Biodegradable
  • B Non-biodegradable
  • C Hazardous
  • D Toxic

Q 74: Which of the following is non-biodegradable?

  • A Animal bones
  • B Nylon
  • C Wool
  • D Banyan tree leaves

Q 75: Which of the following non-biodegradable waste has the potential of polluting earth to dangerous levels of toxicity, if not handled properly?

  • A DDT
  • B CFC
  • C Radioactive substances
  • D PAN

Q 76: Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?

  • A Oil spill
  • B Sewage treatment plant
  • C Open cast mine
  • D Deep bore well

Q 77: BOD stands for

  • A Biological oxygen demand
  • B Basic oxygen dissolved
  • C Biological organic demand
  • D Biological oxygen decomposition

Q 78: Which of the following statement is not a method of purifying water?

  • A Reverse osmosis
  • B UV radiation
  • C Distillation
  • D Evaporation from a water body

Q 79: Which of the following statements is not true with regard to normal plastic waste?

  • A It lasts long.
  • B It clogs the sewage system.
  • C It is biodegradable.
  • D Burning results in toxic fumes.

Q 80: Acid rain is formed by the

  • A Combination of chemical air pollutants with atmospheric water droplets.
  • B Mixing of acid with rain.
  • C Release of industrial pollutants in the atmosphere.
  • D None of the above

Q 81: Which of the following is not an impact of acid rain?

  • A Death of trees
  • B Loss of productivity of plants
  • C Soil alkalinity
  • D Death of fish in lakes and ponds

Q 82: In a lake polluted with pesticides, which one of the folwill contain the maximum amount of pesticides as a result of biomagnification?

  • A Small fish
  • B Microscopic animals
  • C Big fish
  • D Water birds

Q 83: Which of the following is the most dangerous and long-lasting?

  • A Nuclear waste
  • B Volcano ash
  • C Mining waste
  • D Biomedical waste

Q 84: Name the substance whose accumulation in pelicans of Lake Michigan led to the formation of thin shells of their eggs.

  • A CFC
  • B PAN
  • C DDT
  • D PAC

Q 85: Name the process in which a harmful chemical enters the food chain and gets concentrated at each level in the food chain.

  • A Concentration
  • B Biomagnification
  • C Expansion
  • D Pollution

Q 86: Combustion of most fuels releases

  • A Co2
  • B So2
  • C No2
  • D O2

Q 87: Montreal Protocol signed in 1987 was signed to

  • A Phase out the use of CFC’s which cause depletion of the ozone layer.
  • B Reduces the greenhouse effect.
  • C Protect endangered species.
  • D Ban nuclear testing in tropical oceans.

Q 88: Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

  • A Carbon dioxide
  • B Water vapour
  • C Methane
  • D Calcium carbonate

Q 89: Which of the following is not one of the major environment problems resulting from human interference in the nitrogen cycle?

  • A Global warming due to release of nitrous oxide
  • B Acid rain
  • C Eutrophication
  • D Ozone depletion

Q 90: The best way to dispose plant waste is

  • A Burning
  • B Composting
  • C Dumping in a hilly area
  • D Incineration

Q 91: Co2 is stored as a liquid in cylinder at

  • A High pressure
  • B Low pressure
  • C High temperature
  • D Low temperature

Q 92: The best extinguisher for inflammable materials is

  • A Water
  • B So2
  • C Co2
  • D CO

Q 93: They are covered under Stockholm Convention, the toxic is also known as Agent Orange. It was sprayed by the US forces during Vietnam War to destroy the forest cover. Which of the following chemicals is being referred to in the above statement?

  • A Dioxin
  • B Asbestos
  • C Benzene
  • D All the above

Q 94: Petrol engines release gaseous oxides of

  • A Sulphur
  • B Nitrogen
  • C Phosphorous
  • D Carbon

Q 95: Which of the following organisms is the main indicator for sulphur dioxide pollution?

  • A Blue green algae
  • B Lichens
  • C E. coli
  • D None of the above

Q 96: The use of which of the following fuel can help in the reduction of air pollution?

  • A Petrol
  • B Diesel
  • C CNG
  • D None of the above

Q 97: Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

  • A Increased skin cancer
  • B Reduced immune system
  • C Increased liver cancer
  • D Damage to eyes

Q 98: Unburnt carbon particles causes

  • A Cardiac problem
  • B Respiratory problems
  • C Throat problems
  • D Skin infection

Q 99: Which of the following statements are correct in the context of carbon monoxide emissions?

1. It is mainly due to incomplete combustion of fuel.

2. They are more evident in petrol engine.

3. Long-term exposure can cause nausea.

Codes

  • A 1 and 2 only
  • B 1, 2, and 3
  • C 2 and 3 only
  • D 1 and 3 only

Q 100: According to WHO, the maximum permissible level of chlorides in drinking water is

  • A 100 mg/l
  • B 200 mg/l
  • C 600 mg/l
  • D 800 mg/l

Q 101: Which of the following body parts is most likely to be affected by nuclear radiation during the early stages of exposure?

  • A Skin
  • B Bones
  • C Bone marrow
  • D None of the above

Q 102: Which of the following terms is used to describe phenomenon of removing carbon dioxide from nature by carbon sinks (natural or artificial)?

  • A Decomposition
  • B Biosequestration
  • C Emission trading
  • D None of the above

Q 103: Which of the following terms is used to reflect the potential of a greenhouse gas to cause global warming?

  • A Warming potent
  • B Warming potential
  • C Global warming potential
  • D None of the above

Q 104: The living organism that serves as an indicator of air pollution is

  • A Viruses
  • B Fungi
  • C Bacteria
  • D E. coli

Q 105: The gas that is mainly responsible for global warming because of its quantity in the atmosphere is

  • A CFC
  • B Co2
  • C CH4
  • D N2

Q 106: Which of the following statements are true in the context of particulate matter?

1. It is basically a mist, more prevalent during winter weather.

2. It is more prevalent in diesel engine vehicles.

3. Long-term exposure can harm respiratory track and lung functions.

Codes:

  • A 1 and 2
  • B 1, 2 and 3
  • C 2 and 3
  • D 1 and 3

Q 107: Which of the following elements is deposited into aquatic and terrestrial ecosystem when used in intensive agriculture practices?

  • A Nitrogen
  • B Phosphorus
  • C Sulphur
  • D None of these

Q 108: Discharge of industrial wastewater causes all except

  • A Depletion of dissolved oxygen.
  • B Destruction of aquatic life.
  • C Change in climate.
  • D Impairment of biological activity.

Q 109: The rules pertaining to biomedical waste (India) are notified under

  • A Environmental (protection) Act, 1980
  • B Environmental (protection) Act, 1983
  • C Environmental (protection) Act , 1986
  • D Environmental (protection) Act, 1988

Q 110: Which of the following is not recommended for management of plastic waste?

  • A Incineration
  • B Deep burial
  • C Autoclave/hydroclave
  • D All the above

Q 111: Fertilizers can be washed into rivers by rain leading to

  • A Bioaccumulation
  • B Eutrophication
  • C Biodegradation
  • D Spontaneous combustion

Q 112: Which of the following is not an air pollutant?

  • A Oxides of carbon
  • B Oxides of sulphur
  • C Oxides of nitrogen
  • D Oxides of hydrogen

Q 113: The gradual build-up of concentration of chemicals as they transfer through higher levels of food chain is called

  • A Biomagnification
  • B Biodegradation
  • C Bioconcentration
  • D None of the above

Q 114: Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect environment and human health from

  • A Greenhouse gases
  • B Persistent organic pollutants
  • C Hospital acquired Infections
  • D None of the above

Q 115: The presence of high algal content in water indicates that the water is

  • A Neutral
  • B Alkaline
  • C Acidic
  • D None of the above

Q 116: When fluoride concentration in water exceeds 1.5 mg/l or so, the disease that may be caused is

  • A Fluorosis
  • B Poliomyelitis
  • C Dental decay
  • D None of the above

Q 117: The safe permissible limit of sulphate in domestic water supplies is

  • A 100 mg/l
  • B 200 mg/l
  • C 400 mg/l
  • D 300 mg/l

Q 118: Silicosis is caused in the

  • A Textile industry
  • B Sugar industry
  • C Stone crushers
  • D All the above